Study Guide Questions For Immunology

(1) Name the two types of parasites based on cellular localization
(2) Explain the role of neutrophils in innate immunity
(3) The membrane attack complex is formed by proteins
(4) Anaphylatoxins are
(5) What are defensins

(6) Ligands for Toll Like receptor 3(TLR3) are
(7) Name one chemokine. Explain the role of chemokines
(8) Describe the interferon response
(9) B-cells recognize antigen by and T-cells recognize antigen by
(10) MHC class 1 process and present antigens of parasites and MHC class 2 present antigens of parasites.

(11) Describe the role of RAG1 and RAG2 in recombination
(12) Describe how MHC class 1 antigens are processed
(13) Describe the function of transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP)
(14) Name the method of diversity achieved by MHC molecules
(15) Name the HLA types presenting antigens to CD8 T cells
(16) What is MHC restriction

(17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. innate immunity: highly specialized defenses
b. secondary immune response: immunological memory
c. hematopoiesis: bone marrow
d. phagocytosis: uptake and killing of microbes
e. lymphocyte recirculation: continuous transport between blood and lymph

(18) All of the following are examples of chemical barriers of innate immunity except _____.
a. lactic acid
b. normal microbiota
c. lysozyme
d. fatty acids
e. proteases.

(19) When effector lymphocytes secrete _____, an inflammatory response ensues.
a. lysozyme
b. defensins
c. lymph
d. sebum
e. cytokines.

(20) The thin layer of cells that makes up the interior lining of the blood vessels is called the _____.
a. mucosa
b. epithelium
c. endothelium
d. connective tissue
e. lymphoid tissue.

(21) Soluble effector molecules are effective when encountering pathogens in/on _____. (Select all that apply.)
a. extracellular spaces
b. cytoplasm
c. epithelial surfaces
d. interstitial spaces
e. vesicular compartments
f. lymph.

(22) Which of the three complement pathways becomes activated soonest after an initial infection?
a. the classical pathway
b. the lectin pathway
c. the alternative pathway.

(25) Identify the incorrectly paired molecular association.
a. iC3: factor B
b. CR4: iC3b
c. properdin: C3bBb
d. membrane cofactor protein: C3b2Bb
e. decay-accelerating factor: C3bBb.

(26) All of the following complement proteins help form a pore in the pathogen’s membrane except _____.
a. C3b
b. C5b
c. C6
d. C7
e. C8
f. C9.

(27) The importance of CD59 (also known as protectin) is to _____.
a. promote the speed of complement activation by protecting C3 convertase C3bBb from proteolytic degradation
b. prevent the recruitment of C9
c. dissociate the components of the alternative C3 convertase
d. prevent the attachment of C3b to host cell surfaces
e. inhibit the anchoring of C5b, C6, and C7 to host cell surfaces.

(28) _____ are soluble complement fragments that mediate localized and systemic inflammatory responses.
a. cryptdins
b. defensins
c. anaphylatoxins
d. selectins
e. C-reactive proteins.

(29) All of the following statements are correct regarding \alpha2-macroglobulin except _____.
a. it binds covalently to its target via a thioester bond
b. it possesses a bait region to lure its target
c. it undergoes a conformational change that enables it to enshroud the target
d. when bound to its target it is cleared from the circulation by hepatocytes, fibroblasts, and macrophages bearing receptors specific for the complex
e. its target is the membrane-attack complex on human cells.

(30) Although activation of the three different pathways of complement involves different components, the three pathways converge on a common enzymatic reaction referred to as complement fixation.
A. Describe this reaction.
B. Describe the enzyme responsible for this reaction in the alternative pathway.
C. Identify the three effector mechanisms of complement that are enabled by this common pathway.

(31) Which of the following is the soluble form of C3 convertase of the alternative pathway of complement activation?
a. iC3
b. iC3b
c. C3b
d. iC3Bb
e. C3bBb.

(32) Explain the steps that take place when a bacterium is opsonized via C3b:CR1 interaction between the bacterium and a resident macrophage in tissues.

(33) C-type lectins are so called because of the role of _____ in facilitating receptor:ligand interactions.
a. carbohydrate
b. CR1
c. calcium
d. chemokines
e. caspases.

(34) Lectins recognize microbial _____.
a. phosphate-containing lipoteichoic acids
b. nucleic acids
c. carbohydrates
d. flagellin
e. sulfated polysaccharides.

(35) Scavenger receptor SR-B recognizes _____.
a. lipopolysaccharides
b. teichoic acid
c. filamentous hemagglutinin
d. CpG-rich bacterial DNA
e. lipids.

(36) Macrophages bear on their surface receptors for all of the following except _____. (Select all that apply).
a. mannose
b. glucans
c. C3b
d. muramyl dipeptide
e. lipopolysaccharide
f. lipoteichoic acid
g. CpG-rich bacterial DNA.

(37) _____ is a soluble protein. (Select all that apply.)
a. TLR4
b. CD14
c. lipopolysaccharide-binding protein (LBP)
d. CXCR1
e. mannose-binding lectin.

(38) _____ are structurally similar membrane-bound proteins that aid in the adhesion between various types of human cell.
a. Interferons
b. Integrins
c. GTP-binding proteins
d. Pyrogens
e. Pentraxins.

(39) All of the following induce fever except _____.
a. IL-12
b. IL-6
c. IL-1
d. TNF-\alpha.

(40) Match the term in column A with its description in column B.

Column A
Column B
___a. interferon response
1. a notable rise or reduction of plasma proteins in response to IL-6
___b. apoptosis
2. stimulates inhibition of viral replication
___c. extravasation
3. temporary rise in oxygen consumption and toxic oxygen species production
___d. respiratory burst
4. cellular suicide characterized by DNA fragmentation
___e. acute-phase response
5. migration of neutrophils into inflamed tissues

(41) Which of the following is not associated with mobilization of neutrophils to infected tissue?
a. TNF-\alpha production by macrophages
b. upregulation of selectins on blood vessel endothelium
c. interferon response
d. generation of a CXCL8 gradient
e. extravasation across endothelium
f. proteolysis of basement membrane of blood vessels.

(42) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. primary granules: azurophilic granules
b. secondary granules: unsaturated lactoferrin
c. azurophilic granules: myeloperoxidase
d. gelatinase: iron sequestration
e. tertiary granules: natural killer cells.

(43) Which of the following corresponds to the antigen-binding site of immunoglobulins?
a. VH:CH
b. VH:VL
c. VL:CL
d. CH:CL
e. VH:CL.

(44) Another term commonly used to describe hypervariable loops is
a. multivalency
b. framework regions
c. hinge region
d. complementarity-determining regions
e. signal joint.

(45) Which of the following is not a term used to describe the molecules or components of molecules to which antibodies bind? (Select all that apply.)
a. CDR loops
b. antigen
c. hypervariable region
d. antigenic determinant
e. conformational epitope.

(46) All of the following are utilized in the binding of antibodies to antigens except
a. interchain disulfide bonds
b. hydrogen bonding
c. hydrophobic interactions
d. electrostatic forces (salt bridges)
e. van der Waals interactions.

A. What is an epitope?
B. Define the term multivalent antigen.
C. How does a linear epitope differ from a conformational epitope?
D. Do antibodies bind their antigens via noncovalent bonding or via covalent bonding?

(48) T cells recognize antigen when the antigen
a. forms a complex with membrane-bound MHC molecules on another host-derived cell
b. is internalized by T cells via phagocytosis and subsequently binds to T-cell receptors in the endoplasmic reticulum
c. is presented on the surface of a B cell on membrane-bound immunoglobulins
d. forms a complex with membrane-bound MHC molecules on the T cell
e. bears epitopes derived from proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.

(49) T-cell receptors structurally resemble
a. the Fc portion of immunoglobulins
b. MHC class I molecules
c. secreted antibodies
d. a single Fab of immunoglobulins
e. CD3 ? chains.

(50) If viewing the three-dimensional structure of a T-cell receptor from the side, with the T-cell membrane at the bottom and the receptor pointing upwards, which of the following is inconsistent with experimental data?
a. The highly variable CDR loops are located across the top surface.
b. The membrane-proximal domains consist of C? and C?.
c. The portion that makes physical contact with the ligand comprises V? and C?, the domains farthest from the T-cell membrane.
d. The transmembrane regions span the plasma membrane of the T cell.
e. The cytoplasmic tails of the T-cell receptor ? and ? chains are very short.

(51) Unlike B cells, T cells do not engage in any of the following processes except
a. alternative splicing to produce a secreted form of the T-cell receptor
b. alternative splicing to produce different isoforms of the T-cell receptor
c. isotype switching
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

(52) Unlike the C regions of immunoglobulin heavy-chain loci, the C regions of the T-cell receptor ?-chain loci
a. are functionally similar
b. do not contain D segments
c. are more numerous
d. are encoded on a different chromosome from the variable ?-chain gene segments of the T-cell receptor
e. do not encode a transmembrane region
f. possess non-templated P and N nucleotides.

(53) Which of the following statements regarding Omenn syndrome is incorrect?
a. A bright red, scaly rash is due to a chronic inflammatory condition.
b. Affected individuals are susceptible to infections with opportunistic pathogens.
c. It is invariably fatal unless the immune system is rendered competent through a bone marrow transplant.
d. It is the consequence of complete loss of RAG function.
e. There is a deficiency of functional B and T cells.
f. It is associated with missense mutations of RAG genes.

A. Identify which features of the RAG genes have similarity to the transposase gene of transposons.
B. Explain how the mechanisms for immunoglobulin and T-cell receptor rearrangement may have evolved in humans.

(55) All of the following statements regarding ?:? T cells are correct except
a. they are more abundant in tissue than in the circulation
b. the ? chain is the counterpart to the ? chain in ?:? T-cell receptors because it contains V, D, and J segments in the variable region
c. they share some properties with NK cells
d. activation is not always dependent on recognition of a peptide:MHC molecule complex
e. expression on the cell surface is not dependent on the CD3 complex.

(56) Place the following phases of a B cell’s life history in the correct chronological order.
a. negative selection
b. attacking infection
c. finding infection
d. searching for infection
e. repertoire assembly
f. positive selection.

(57) Place the following stages of B-cell development in the correct chronological order.
a. early pro-B cell
b. large pre-B cell
c. immature B cell
d. stem cell
e. late pro-B cell
f. small pre-B cell.

A. Discuss the importance of the bone marrow stroma for B-cell development.
B. What would be the effect of anti-IL-7 antibodies on the development of B cells in the bone marrow, and at which stage would development be impaired? Explain your answer.

A. What are the two main checkpoints of B-cell development in the bone marrow?
B. What is the fate of developing B cells that produce (i) functional or (ii) nonfunctional heavy and light chains?
C. Explain how these two checkpoints correlate with the process of allelic exclusion that ensures that only one heavy-chain locus and one light-chain locus produce functional gene products.

(60) Large pre-B cells are characterized by which of the following?
a. They do not express CD19 at the cell surface.
b. Rearrangement of light-chain genes commences.
c. Nonproductive rearrangement of both heavy-chain loci has already occurred.
d. Allelic exclusion of the immunoglobulin light-chain loci has already occurred.
e. ? is assembled with VpreB?5.

(61) All hematopoietic stem cells express
a. CD34
b. CD127
c. CD19
d. VpreB?5
e. Pax-5

(62) Which of the following do not associate with one another during B-cell development?
a. IL-7: IL-7 receptor of late pro-B cells
b. Pax-5: CD19 gene
c. surrogate light chain: ? heavy chain
d. VpreB: ?5
e. SCF: Kit
f. pre-B-cell receptor: Ig? and Ig?

(63) The latest stages of late pro-B-cell development are recognized by the association of a surrogate light chain with a ? chain. The surrogate light chain is composed of
a. E2A and EFB
b. Ig? and Ig?
c. VpreB and ?5
d. RAG-1 and RAG-2
e. Pax-5 and CD19.

(64) An important advantage of having two gene loci (? and ?) for the light chain is
a. that the likelihood of a successful rearrangement of light-chain genes increases.
b. that immunoglobulins are homogeneous and not heterogeneous in mature B cells.
c. that different effector functions are conferred by the two different light-chain loci.
d. that surrogate light-chain transcription cannot compete with ? and ? transcription and enables B-cell development.
e. all of the above.

(65) Which of the following is correctly matched? (Select all that apply.)
a. early pro-B cell: VDJ rearranged
b. pre-B-cell receptor: VpreB?5/?u heavy chain
c. mature B cell: IgM plus IgD
d. small pre-B cell: VJ rearranged
e. immature B cell: ? heavy chain plus ? or ? light chain on surface.

(66) Large pre-B cells undergo clonal expansion before the rearrangement of light-chain loci. Which of the following are beneficial consequences of clonal expansion? (Select all that apply.)
a. Autoreactive B cells are eliminated before the expenditure of energy needed to rearrange a functional light-chain gene.
b. The energy used to make a functional heavy chain is not wasted as a result of the inability to produce a functional light chain.
c. RAG gene expression is decreased, which in turn signals light-chain rearrangement.
d. A diverse population of immature B cells is generated that express the same ? chain but a distinct light chain.
e. Approximately 85% of small pre-B cells will progress to the immature B-cell stage.

(67) A defect in which of the following proteins blocks B-cell development at the pre-B-cell stage, resulting in almost no circulating antibodies in individuals with this defect?
a. IL-7 receptor
b. terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase (TdT)
c. Pax-5
d. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk)
e. CD19.

(68) In which of the following ways does the developmental pathway of ?:? T cells differ from that of B cells? (Select all that apply.)
a. Their antigen receptors are derived from gene rearrangement processes.
b. When the first chain of the antigen receptor is produced it combines with a surrogate chain.
c. Cells bearing self-reactive antigen receptors undergo apoptosis.
d. MHC molecules are required to facilitate progression through the developmental pathway.
e. T cells do not rearrange their antigen-receptor genes in the bone marrow.

(69) Which of the following cell-surface glycoproteins is characteristic of stem cells, but stops being expressed when a cell has committed to the T-cell developmental pathway?
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD25
d. CD34
e. MHC class II.

(70) Which of the following processes is not dependent on an interaction involving MHC class I or class II molecules? (Select all that apply.)
a. positive selection of ?:? T cells
b. intracellular signaling by pre-T-cell receptors
c. negative selection of ?? T cells
d. peripheral activation of mature naive T cells
e. positive selection of ?:? T cells.

(71) If a double-negative thymocyte has just completed a productive ?-chain gene rearrangement, which of the following describes the immediate next step in the development of this thymocyte?
a. A pre-T-cell receptor is assembled as a superdimer.
b. Rearrangement of ?- and ?-chain genes commences.
c. Expression levels of RAG-1 and RAG-2 are elevated.
d. The linked ?-chain genes are eliminated.
e. This cell will inevitably differentiate into a committed ?:? T cell.

(72) All of the following cell-surface glycoproteins are expressed by double-negative thymocytes undergoing maturation in the thymus except _____. (Select all that apply.)
a. CD2
b. CD5
c. CD127 (IL-7 receptor)
d. CD34
e. CD1A
f. CD4.

(73) _____ is a T-cell-specific adhesion molecule expressed before the expression of a functional T-cell receptor while the thymocytes are still in their double-negative stage of development.
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD25
d. CD2
e. CD3.

(74) Which of the following is mismatched:
a. double-negative CD3– thymocytes: cortico-medullary junction
b. double-negative CD3– thymocytes: subcapsular zone
c. double-positive CD3+ thymocytes: cortico-medullary junction
d. cortical epithelial cells: subcapsular regions
e. dendritic cells: cortico-medullary junction.

(75) 7–8 After interaction with thymic stromal cells, _____, a glycoprotein not expressed by the uncommitted progenitor cell is activated in developing thymocytes. (Select all that apply.)
a. CD2
b. CD34
c. CD5
d. CD127 (IL-7 receptor)
e. CD44.

(76) Which of the following statements about Notch 1 is correct? (Select all that apply.)
a. Notch 1 is expressed on thymic epithelial cells.
b. In the absence of Notch 1 expression, T cells can complete their differentiation.
c. Notch 1 is to T-cell development as Pax-5 is to B-cell development.
d. Notch 1 contains two distinct domains, one of which is proteolytically cleaved and becomes a transcription factor in the nucleus.
e. The extracellular domain of Notch 1 must interact with a ligand on thymic epithelium to initiate cleavage and separation of the Notch 1 extracellular and intracellular domains.

(77) Which of the following is the first stage of T-cell receptor gene rearrangement in ?:? T cells?
a. V??D?
b. D? ?J?
c. V?? D?
d. D??J?
e. V??J?.

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Study Guide Questions For Immunology

(1) Name the two types of parasites based on cellular localization

Ans: Intracellular parasites and extracellular parasites.

(2) Explain the role of neutrophils in innate immunity

Ans: Neutrophils particularly polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) are part of the surveillance system in the body fluids where they can identify any invading pathogen, attack/engulf them and destroy it.

(3) The membrane attack complex is formed by                           proteins

Ans: Complement system proteins especially C5b, C6, C7, C8α C8β and C9.

(4) Anaphylatoxins are

Ans: The peptide fragments C3a and C5a of the complement system protein C3 and C5 respectively. They have an antimicrobial property and induce other cells to release cytokines. C5a especially produces chemotaxis for macrophages, neutrophils, basophils and activated B and T cells. These are also involved in vasodilation and enhancing the permeability of blood vessels.

(5) What are defensins

These are, positively charged, cysteine-rich, antimicrobial peptides produced in epithelial cells and granulocytes in response to invading pathogens upon stimulation by chemokines such as IL-1 and TNF-α.

(6) Ligands for Toll Like receptor 3(TLR3) are

Ans: dsRNA (double-stranded RNA) from viral infections

(7) Name one chemokine. Explain the role of chemokines

Interleukin-6 is a chemokine. Chemokines are signaling molecules secreted from immune cells such as lymphocytes and leucocytes and cause chemotaxis as well as regulation of gene expression in their target cells during inflammation and defense.

(8) Describe the interferon response

Interferons are a family of glycoproteins released during viral infections or other clinical immune responses and are one of the important mediators of the first line of defense in innate immunity. These are cytokines that are involved in immunity against viruses, cancers, and other immunomodulatory actions. As soon as there is any viral infection, interferons are released and then through various mechanisms, they lead to the expression of Interferon responsive genes (IRI), a few of them (say OAS members) may lead to activation of certain nucleases (say RNASEL) that cleave the RNAs of invading viruses and pathogens. This causes inhibition of protein synthesis and thus a breakdown of viral or pathogen replication.

(9) B-cells recognize antigen by
Ans: B- cell receptor (BCR)

and T-cells recognize antigen by

Ans: T – cell receptor (TCR).

(10) MHC class 1 process and present antigens of

Ans: endogenous                parasites and MHC class 2 present antigens of
Ans:    exogenous.

(11) Describe the role of RAG1 and RAG2 in recombination

RAG1 and RAG2 are recombination activating genes expressed in lymphocytes. They are involved in VDJ recombination. The coding sequences of Immuno-globulin and TCR genes are flanked by recombination signal sequences (RSS) which are recognized by a protein complex formed by RAG1 and RAG2. These DNA sequences are cleaved at the point between RSS and the coding sequences, following which the nascent broken ends join and gene rearrangement thus occurs.

(12) Describe how MHC class 1 antigens are processed

Class I MHC antigens are processed via an endogenous pathway. Endogenous antigens are first degraded by the proteasome. Then they have assembled with MHC class I receptors at Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum lumen. Then through the Golgi apparatus, they are transported to be presented on the cell membrane of the Antigen-presenting cells.
Class 1 MHC antigen through the antigen-presenting cells interact with the cytotoxic or CD8+ T cells. In a naïve T cell, they are not phagocytosed automatically. A costimulatory signal is required from CD28 and CD80/86 along with paracrine cytokine signaling such as IL-12 and autocrine signaling with IL-2. Thus the T cell is activated. This follows intracellular signaling through which molecules such as perforins and granzyme are produced that kill the target cells.

(13) Describe the function of transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP)

Ans: TAP are the hetero-dimeric proteins situated on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum(RER), that mediate the transfer of peptides generated from antigen degradation by the proteasome, to the inside of the lumen of RER. In the RER these peptides bind with class I MHC....

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