Simple Answers to the Following Philosophers:

Locke insists on the impossibility of inventing or imagining a new sim- ple idea. But how is it that he can be so sure that no one could possibly, for example, "fancy any taste which had never affected his palate, or frame the idea of a scent he had never smelt" (lI,ii,2)? Suppose someone insisted that she could imagine such a scent or taste. Could Locke refute her?

"Whatever alterations are made in the body, if they do not reach the mind ... there is no perception" (11,ix,3). What kind of statement is Locke mak- ing here? Is it like: "Whatever fuel is put into the tank, if it doesn't reach the combustion chambers, there is no starting the engine"? Or is it more like: "Whatever figure is drawn on the board, if it doesn't have four sides, there is no rectangle"?

In Sections 22-24 of the Principles, Berkeley argues that one cannot even conceive it possible that the objects of one's thoughts may exist without (independent of) the mind. What is his premise? Does his conclusion follow necessarily from his premise? (Suggestion: Concentrate on Sec. 23.)

What, according to Hume, is the nature of the evidence which assures us of any real existence or matter of fact, beyond the present testimony of our senses, or the records of our memory? (Go into some detail.)

What are the pure forms of intuition and how do they relate to the pure forms of the understanding? What are phenomena and how do they relate to things as they are in themselves?

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Locke believes that all knowledge comes first through our sensory experience of the world. For example, I know how fried chicken smells, because I know it through my sensory experience of smelling it. According to Locke, I would not be able to reproduce the sensation of fried chicken. This is what Locke means when he writes in an Essay Concerning Human Understanding that it is impossible to “fancy any taste which had never affected his palate, or frame the idea of scent he had never smelt” (II,ii,2)....

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