1. Practically speaking, "abnormal" behavior means any behavior that:
a. Is "away from the normal" and causes distress.
b. Causes a person distress.
c. Causes us to consider our values.
d. Deviates from the norms of the society in which the person lives.

2. What term refers to the new cases of a disorder that occur over a given time period?
a. Point prevalence
b. One-year prevalence
c. Incidence
d. Valence

3. What is the value of using an ABAB design?
a. It permits the study of the effects of multiple forms of treatment on a single subject.
b. Subjects can be selected randomly.
C. The effects of a single form of treatment are studied twice with the same subject.
d. Generalizability is ensured.

4. In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is a:
a. Distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder.
b. Sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C. Necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
d. Biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of a disorder.

5. Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology.
Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?
a. Intense psychotherapy
b. A prolonged vacation
C. A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
d. Family therapy and a change in her work environment

6. John Bowlby's attachment theory emphasized the
a. Social environment in forming attachments.
b. Quality of parental care in forming attachments.
C. Quality of early reinforcers and stimulation in forming attachments.
d. Necessity of independence from parental figures in forming attachments.

7. Dana's mother suffers from serious depressive episodes. Dana is likely to:
a. Be at risk for depression herself.
b. Become a happy-go-lucky child because she had to cope with so much.
C. Act in an aggressive, criminal manner.
d. Have intense attachments to her mother.

8. Which of the following statements about reliability and validity is true?
a. Reliable tests are usually valid.
b. Valid tests are usually reliable.
C. There is no relationship between reliability and validity.
d. In order for a test to be reliable, it must be valid.

9. What do positive and negative stressors have in common?
a. They usually last indefinitely.
b. Both occur without warning.
c. They have an equivalent potential for causing lasting damage.
d. Both tax one's resources and coping skills.

10. Which of the following can cause stress-induced immunosuppression?
a. Serotonin
b. Adrenaline
C. GABA
d. Glucocorticoids

11. Which is an individual risk factor for developing PTSD?
a. Experiencing higher levels of social support
b. Having no family history of depression
c. Believing that symptoms are a sign of personal strength
d. Being neurotic

12. Which of the following would be an example of anxiety?
a. Julie jumps when she sees a snake.
b. Hilda dreads walking home alone.
c. Carl is certain that the food was poisoned.
d. The voices in Paul's head tell him he should be afraid.

13. Which of the following seems to be the best treatment for phobias?
a. Exposure therapy
b. Psychoanalysis
C. Cognitive restructuring
d. Family therapy

14. One of the main problems with the worry in generalized anxiety disorders is that it:
a. Keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them.
b. Is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction.
c. Increases the effects of operant conditioning on their fears.
d. Keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they don't worry.

15. Which of the following is one of the five primary types of compulsive acts of individuals with OCD?
a. Cleaning
b. Fear of contamination
C. Fear of danger
d. Scanning

16. Which of the following is true of a major depressive episode?
a. It does not begin until adolescence.
b. It is equally common in men and women.
c. It occurs five times as often in elderly people as in middle-aged adults.
d. It is the most prevalent mood episode.

17. Which of the following is a brain area that has been found to exhibit abnormalities in depressed patients?
a. Amygdala
b. Basal ganglia
c. Posterior cingulate cortex
d. Medulla oblongata

18. Research on hypochondriasis has shown that people with the disorder tend to:
a. Ignore information about illness.
b. Overestimate the dangerousness of diseases.
C. Underestimate the dangerousness of diseases.
d. Overestimate their ability to handle being ill.

19. The most common kind of speech-related conversion reaction is:
a. Alexia
b. Aphonia
C. Apraxia
d. Alogia

20. Which of the following is most commonly true of the host identity in DID?
a. It does not answer to the person's actual name.
b. It is always the most well-adjusted of the identities.
C. It is the second or third alter to develop.
d. It is not the original identity.

21. To make a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, the client must:
a. Have a distorted body image.
b. Not meet the criteria for anorexia nervosa.
C. Have missed three consecutive menstrual periods.
d. Admit that she has a problem.

22 In anorexics, which one of the following neurotransmitters has been observed to be dysfunctional?
a. Dopamine
b. Epinephrine
C. GABA
d. Serotonin

23. Which basic personality traits of the five-factor model seem most important in the development of a paranoid personality disorder?
a. Introversion and openness to feelings
b. Excitement seeking and neuroticism
C. Antagonism and neuroticism
d. Fantasy proneness and tough mindedness

24. Transient psychotic and dissociative experiences can occur in personality disorder.
a. Borderline
b. Antisocial
C. Narcissistic
d. Obsessive-compulsive

25. Donna has borderline personality disorder. She is in therapy, but progress is slow. One problem is that some days she thinks her therapist is the most wonderful person in the world. On other days, she thinks he is worthless and untrustworthy. This type of thinking is called:
a. Dialectical
b. Splitting
c. Entitlement
d. Psychopathological

26. Which of the following is a consequence of organic impairment resulting from long-term substance use, as opposed to being a consequence of drug toxicity?
a. Alcohol amnestic disorder
b. Alcoholic intoxication
C. Amphetamine delusional disorder
d. Cannabis delirium

27. All drugs that people become dependent upon:
a. Are socially acceptable.
b. Act on pleasure pathways in the brain.
c. Provide the user with renewed energy.
d. Produce withdrawal symptoms when use is ceased.

28. Children of mothers who use crack:
a. Are likely to have fetal crack syndrome.
b. Usually have no physical or mental problems.
C. Are at risk for being mistreated by their mothers.
d. Are at higher risk for anxiety disorders and ADHD.

29. Which of the following is an example of a delusion?
a. Bob thinks the CIA is controlling his thoughts.
b. The voices in Jaimie's head tell him not to trust the priest.
C. Tracy does not think she can get pregnant the first time she has sex.
d. Carla sees and feels bugs crawling up her arm.

30.Negative symptoms are:
a. Those that are harmful.
b. More disturbing to the patient than positive symptoms.
C. A common side effect of antipsychotic medications.
d. Characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.

30. What is the major difference between a diagnosis of schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
a. The presence of delusions and hallucinations
b. The age of the person when they develop the disorder
C. The degree of emotional instability and disconnection from other people
d. The duration of symptoms

32. Schizophrenia is best described as a genetically:
a. Influenced single gene disorder.
b. Influenced multiple gene disorder.
C. Determined single gene disorder.
d. Determined multiple gene disorder.

33. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer's disease?
a. Being a woman
b. Having a family history of Parkinson's disease
c. Living in a non-Western developed nation
d. Being highly educated

34. A hypothetical drug that might improve the cognitive functioning of Alzheimer's patients would probably:
a. Decrease levels of acetylcholine.
b. Increase levels of acetylcholine.
c. Increase levels of beta amyloid.
d. Decrease the activity of all genes that produce ApoE.

35. Among children, the most commonly diagnosed disorders are:
a. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and separation anxiety disorders.
b. Psychotic conditions such as schizophrenia.
c. Depression and phobic conditions.
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder and conduct disorder.

36. Separation anxiety disorder is best illustrated by which of the following people?
a. Thomas, who is fiercely independent of other children and his parents
b. Harriet, who refuses to talk to her teachers or adults other than her parents
c. Isabella, who worries that her father will die if she is not near him
d. Chuck, who is afraid he will be beaten by bullies at school

37. The most effective medical treatment for Tourette's syndrome is:
a. Biofeedback training.
b. Central nervous stimulants such as Ritalin.
c. Neuroleptics such as haloperidol.
d. The hormone replacement drug DDVAP.

38. Which of the following statements about therapy is true?
a. Even people who are happy and successful can benefit from therapy.
b. Few therapies have been found to be effective.
c. Therapy is usually the most expensive approach to a problem.
d. Each therapist has his or her own approach to therapy and does not alter this approach for different clients.

39. Which of the following is not an element of a therapeutic alliance?
a. A sense of working together to solve a problem
b. Client acceptance of the therapist's theoretical orientation
C. Agreement between client and therapist about the goals of therapy
d. An affective bond between the client and therapist

40. A major advantage of the atypical antipsychotic drugs is that they:
a. Work better than the conventional ones.
b. Work for more people than the conventional ones.
c. Have a low risk of movement-related side effects.
d. Last longer than the conventional ones.

Part II-True/False Questions (20 marks total)
Circle T on the answer sheet if the statement is true, or F if it is false. (1 mark each)
1. The number of times that people suffer from a particular disorder during their lives is called their lifetime prevalence.
2. Contributory causes are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.
3. The projective test called the Thematic Apperception Test is the inkblot test used in personality assessments.
4. The DSM-5 disorder that has symptoms of post-traumatic stress but lasts less than 4 weeks is called acute stress disorder.
5. A recent development in understanding the impact of personality in cardiovascular disease is the Type C personality, which includes insecurity and anxiety.
6. Specific phobias are persistent and strong fears triggered by specific objects or situations that are unreasonable.
7. The hippocampus is the part of the brain that plays a central role in panic attacks.
8. The hormone cortisol has been found to be elevated in most patients hospitalized with major depressive disorder.
9. Pain disorder is more difficult to treat than somatization disorder because pain disorder is more complex than somatization disorder.
10. Hypochondriasis is characterized by a person intentionally producing symptoms and being motivated by incentives.
11. The hormone leptin that stimulates appetite is produced by the stomach.
12. The neurotransmitter called serotonin is implicated in obesity.
13. Cluster B Personality disorders include avoidant and dependent personality disorders.
14. The mesocorticolimbic dopamine pathway is the center of psychoactive drug activation in the brain.
15. The subtype of schizophrenia that includes bizarre behavior and disorganized speech is the paranoid type.
16. In Alzheimer S disease, tau proteins are deposits of sticky protein.
17. Huntington's disease is rare and caused by an autosomal dominant gene on chromosome 21.
18. Although diagnoses of Depression and Bipolar Disorder in children and adolescents have increased over the past few years, these diagnoses are controversial.
19. In psychodynamic terms, the feelings that a therapist may have for a client, based on his or her unconscious motives, is known as transference.
20. Efforts that are directed toward high-risk individuals with detectable symptoms are called indictated interventions.

1. What is the DSM and what is the definition of a mental disorder for the DSM-5?
2. Describe four factors that can worsen a soldier's response to the trauma of combat.
3. Discuss the difference between fear and anxiety.
4. Distinguish between cyclothymic disorder, bipolar I disorder, and bipolar II disorder. How are these disorders alike and how are they different?
5. Explain the similarities and the difference between conversion disorder, factitious disorder, and malingering.
6. Compare and contrast histrionic and narcissistic personality disorder.
7. Define positive and negative symptoms for schizophrenia. Give examples of each.
8. Your text lists nine types of impairments that are commonly found in neuropsychological disorders. List and describe five of them.

1. Practically speaking, &quot;abnormal&quot; behavior means any be...

1. Practically speaking, "abnormal" behavior means any be...